Ultimate Guide to Prepare Free AHIMA CDIP Exam Questions and Answer
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NEW QUESTION # 74
The best approach in resolving unanswered queries is to
- A. notify the coding team of the physician's unanswered query
- B. contact the physician repeatedly until he/she responds to the query
- C. notify the physician advisor/champion that the physician has not responded to the query
- D. review the facility's query policies and procedures
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
facilities must develop an escalation policy for unanswered queries and address any medical staff concerns regarding queries1. If a query does not receive an appropriate professional response, the case should be referred for further review in accordance with the facility's written escalation policy2. The escalation policy should address when the issue is brought to the physician advisor, the department director, or administration with defined actions as to the responsibilities at each level1. The policies should reflect a method of response that can realistically occur for the organization1. Therefore, reviewing the facility's query policies and procedures is the best approach to ensure compliance and consistency in handling unanswered queries.
The other options are not advisable because they either involve skipping the escalation policy, notifying the physician advisor/champion without proper review or feedback, contacting the physician repeatedly without respecting their time or availability, or notifying the coding team without resolving the query issue.
NEW QUESTION # 75
A clinical documentation integrity practitioner (CDIP) is looking for clarity on whether a diagnosis has been
"ruled in" or "ruled out". Which type of query is the best option?
- A. Multiple-choice
- B. Open-ended
- C. Yes/No
- D. None
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
An open-ended query is a type of query that allows the provider to respond with free text, rather than choosing from a list of options or answering yes or no. An open-ended query is appropriate when the CDIP is looking for clarity on whether a diagnosis has been "ruled in" or "ruled out", because it allows the provider to document the final diagnosis or impression based on the clinical evidence and reasoning. An open-ended query also avoids leading or suggesting a specific diagnosis to the provider, which could compromise the integrity and validity of the documentation. (Guidelines for Achieving a Compliant Query Practice (2019 Update) - AHIMA1) References:
Guidelines for Achieving a Compliant Query Practice (2019 Update) - AHIMA1
NEW QUESTION # 76
The clinical documentation integrity (CDI) team in a hospital is initiating a project to change the unacceptable documentation behaviors of some physicians. What strategy should be part of a project aimed at improving these behaviors?
- A. Expand use of coding queries by CDI team
- B. Add a physician advisor/champion to the CDI team
- C. Encourage physician-nurse cooperation
- D. Alter the physician documentation requirements
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
A strategy that should be part of a project aimed at improving the unacceptable documentation behaviors of some physicians is to add a physician advisor/champion to the CDI team. A physician advisor/champion is a physician leader who supports and advocates for the CDI program, educates and mentors other physicians on documentation best practices, resolves conflicts and barriers, and provides feedback and recognition to physicians who improve their documentation. A physician advisor/champion can help change the documentation behaviors of some physicians by using peer influence, credibility, and authority to motivate them to comply with the CDI program goals and standards. A physician advisor/champion can also help bridge the gap between the CDI team and the physicians, and foster a culture of collaboration and quality improvement 23.
References: 1: AHIMA CDIP Exam Prep, Fourth Edition, p. 136 4 2: The Role of Physician Advisors in Clinical Documentation Improvement Programs 5 3: Physician Advisor: The Key to Clinical Documentation Improvement Success
NEW QUESTION # 77
Several physicians at a local hospital are having difficulty providing adequate documentation on patients admitted with a diagnosis of pneumonia with or without clinical indications of gram-negative pneumonia. Subsequently, clinical documentation integrity practitioners (CDIPs) are altering health records. Which policy and procedure should be developed to ensure compliant practice?
- A. Accreditation standards
- B. Quality improvement standards
- C. Professional ethical standards
- D. Performance standards
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
A policy and procedure that should be developed to ensure compliant practice for CDIPs who are altering health records is professional ethical standards. Professional ethical standards are the principles and values that guide the conduct and decision-making of CDIPs in their role of ensuring the accuracy, completeness, and integrity of clinical documentation and coded data. According to the AHIMA Standards of Ethical Coding1 and the ACDIS Code of Ethics2, CDIPs should not alter health records without the consent or direction of the provider, as this may compromise the quality and validity of the documentation and coding, and may violate legal and regulatory requirements. CDIPs should also respect the confidentiality and security of health records, and report any unethical or fraudulent practices to the appropriate authority.
References:
CDIP Exam Content Outline (https://www.ahima.org/media/1z0x0x1a/cdip-exam-content-outline.pdf) AHIMA Standards of Ethical Coding1 ACDIS Code of Ethics2
NEW QUESTION # 78
A hospital administrator wants to initiate a clinical documentation integrity (CDI) program and has developed a steering committee to identify performance metrics. The CDI manager expects to use a case mix index as one of the metrics. Which other metric will need to be measured?
- A. Comparison of severity of illness with the CC capture rates
- B. Assessment of CC/MCC capture rates
- C. Comparison of risk of mortality with diagnostic related group capture rates
- D. Assessment of APR-DRGs with capture of CC or MCC
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
A CC/MCC capture rate is a metric that measures the percentage of cases that have at least one complication or comorbidity (CC) or major complication or comorbidity (MCC) coded in the medical record. This metric is important for a CDI program because CCs and MCCs affect the severity of illness, risk of mortality, and reimbursement of the cases under the Medicare Severity-Diagnosis Related Group (MS-DRG) system. A higher CC/MCC capture rate indicates a more accurate and complete documentation of the patient's condition and the resources used to treat them. A CDI program can use this metric to monitor the effectiveness of its queries, education, and feedback to the providers and coders. A CDI program can also compare its CC/MCC capture rate with national or regional benchmarks to identify areas of improvement or best practices 2.
References: 1: AHIMA CDIP Exam Prep, Fourth Edition, p. 133 3 2: The Natural History of CDI Programs: A Metric-Based Model 4
NEW QUESTION # 79
Which member of the clinical documentation integrity (CDI) team can help provide peer-to-peer level of education on the importance of accurate documentation and query responses?
- A. Chief Financial Officer
- B. CDI manager
- C. CDI practitioner
- D. Physician advisor/champion
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
The member of the clinical documentation integrity (CDI) team who can help provide peer-to-peer level of education on the importance of accurate documentation and query responses is the physician advisor/champion. The physician advisor/champion is a physician who supports and advocates for the CDI program and its goals, and who can communicate effectively with other physicians about the clinical and financial implications of documentation quality and accuracy. The physician advisor/champion can also serve as a liaison between the CDI team and the medical staff, and help to resolve any issues or conflicts that may arise from the query process. The physician advisor/champion can also provide feedback and guidance to the CDI team on clinical matters and documentation standards. (CDIP Exam Preparation Guide) References:
CDIP Exam Content Outline1
CDIP Exam Preparation Guide2
NEW QUESTION # 80
An otherwise healthy male was admitted to undergo a total hip replacement as treatment for ongoing primary osteoarthritis of the right hip. During the post-operative period, the patient choked on liquids which resulted in aspiration pneumonia as shown on chest x-ray.
Intravenous antibiotics were administered, and the pneumonia was
monitored for improvement with two additional chest x-rays. The patient was discharged to home in stable condition on post-operative day 5.
Final Diagnoses:
1. Primary osteoarthritis of right hip status post uncomplicated total hip replacement
2. Aspiration pneumonia due to choking on liquid episode
What is the correct diagnostic related group assignment?
- A. 179 Respiratory Infections and Inflammations without CC/MCC
- B. 469 Major Joint Replacement or Reattachment of Lower Extremity with MCC
- C. 470 Major Joint Replacement or Reattachment of Lower Extremity without MCC
- D. 553 Bone Diseases and Arthropathies with MCC
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
The correct diagnostic related group (DRG) assignment for this case is 469 Major Joint Replacement or Reattachment of Lower Extremity with MCC. This is because the principal diagnosis is primary osteoarthritis of right hip status post uncomplicated total hip replacement, which belongs to the Major Diagnostic Category (MDC) 08 Diseases and Disorders of the Musculoskeletal System and Connective Tissue. The DRG 469 is assigned to cases with this MDC and a surgical procedure code for major joint replacement or reattachment of lower extremity. The secondary diagnosis of aspiration pneumonia due to choking on liquid episode qualifies as a major complication or comorbidity (MCC), which increases the relative weight and payment for the DRG. The MCC is determined by applying the Medicare Code Editor (MCE) software, which checks the validity and compatibility of the diagnosis codes and assigns them to different severity levels based on the CMS Severity-Diagnosis Related Group (MS-DRG) definitions manual 2.
References: 1: AHIMA CDIP Exam Prep, Fourth Edition, p. 133 3 2: CMS MS-DRG Definitions Manual, Version 38.0, p. 8-9 4
NEW QUESTION # 81
Which of the following sources provide external benchmarks to examine the effectiveness of a facility's clinical documentation program?
- A. Agency for Healthcare Research and Quality
- B. American Health Information Management Association
- C. Health Care Financing Administration
- D. Medicare Provider Analysis and Review
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
The Agency for Healthcare Research and Quality (AHRQ) provides external benchmarks to examine the effectiveness of a facility's clinical documentation program by developing and disseminating quality indicators (QIs) that measure various aspects of health care quality, such as patient safety, outcomes, efficiency, and effectiveness. These QIs are based on administrative data and can be used to compare the performance of different health care providers or facilities across the nation. The QIs include inpatient quality indicators (IQIs), patient safety indicators (PSIs), prevention quality indicators (PQIs), and pediatric quality indicators (PQIs). These QIs can help clinical documentation improvement (CDI) programs identify areas of improvement, monitor trends, and evaluate the impact of CDI interventions on health care quality 2.
References: 1: Clinical Documentation Improvement Programs: Quality, Efficiency | Deloitte US Analysis 2 2:
AHRQ Quality Indicators 3
NEW QUESTION # 82
Identify the error in the following query:
This patient's echocardiogram showed an ejection fraction of 25%. The chest x-ray showed congestive heart failure (CHF). The patient was prescribed Lasix and an angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor (ACEI). Is this patient's CHF systolic?
- A. The query does not contain clinical indicators.
- B. The query is unclear.
- C. The query is leading.
- D. The query contains irrelevant information.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
A leading query is one that suggests a specific diagnosis, condition, or treatment to the provider, or implies that a certain response is desired or expected. A leading query can compromise the integrity and accuracy of the documentation and the coded data, and may also raise compliance and ethical issues. A query should be non-leading, meaning that it presents the facts from the health record without bias or influence, and allows the provider to use their clinical judgment to determine the appropriate response.
The query in the question is leading because it implies that the patient's CHF is systolic by asking a yes/no question that only offers one option. A non-leading query would ask an open-ended question that offers multiple options, such as "What type of CHF does this patient have?" or "Please specify the type of CHF:
systolic, diastolic, or combined."
References:
CDIP Exam Preparation Guide, 2021 Edition. AHIMA Press. ISBN: 9781584268530 Guidelines for Achieving a Compliant Query Practice-2022 Update | ACDIS Guidelines for Achieving a Compliant Query Practice (2019 Update) - AHIMA The Provider Query Toolkit: A Guide to Compliant Practices
NEW QUESTION # 83
A key physician approaches the director of the coding department about the new emphasis associated with clinical documentation integrity (CDI). The physician does not support the program and believes the initiative will encourage inappropriate billing.
How should the director respond to the concerns?
- A. Refer the physician to the finance department to discuss required billing changes
- B. Develop an administrative panel to oversee CDI process
- C. Involve the physician advisor/champion in addressing the medical staff's concerns
- D. Inform the physician that changes must be made
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
The director should involve the physician advisor/champion in addressing the medical staff's concerns because the physician advisor/champion is a key member of the CDI team who can provide clinical expertise, education, and leadership to promote CDI among physicians. The physician advisor/champion can help to explain the goals and benefits of CDI, such as improving patient care quality, accuracy of documentation, and appropriate reimbursement. The physician advisor/champion can also address any misconceptions or fears that the physicians may have about CDI, such as encouraging inappropriate billing or increasing their workload.
The physician advisor/champion can serve as a liaison between the CDI team and the medical staff, and foster a culture of collaboration and trust.
References:
CDIP Exam Content Outline (https://www.ahima.org/media/1z0x0x1a/cdip-exam-content-outline.pdf) CDIP Exam Preparation Guide (https://my.ahima.org/store/product?id=67077)
NEW QUESTION # 84
A 100-year-old female presents to the emergency department with altered mental state and a 3-day history of productive cough, shortness of breath, and fever after a witnessed aspiration 3 days ago. The patient lives in custodial care at a nearby skilled nursing facility. Patient was treated with Augmentin at the facility without improvement. Exam is notable for Tc 38.9, blood pressure 142/78, respiratory rate 28, pulse 91. There is accessory muscle use with breathing.
Patient is moaning and disoriented but
otherwise the neurologic exam is nonfocal.
Labs notable for sodium 126, creatinine 0.5. white blood count 17.5, hemoglobin 13, platelet 200. venous blood gas 7.44/32/45/-3 Chest x-ray shows bilateral lower lobe infiltrates and dense right lower lobe consolidation.
Patient is placed on bilevel positive airway pressure and given vancomycin, pip/tazo, levofloxacin.
Discharge Diagnosis: health care associated pneumonia (HCAP), respiratory distress, altered mental status, low sodium Which list of diagnoses require a post-discharge query that will result in a more specific principal diagnosis with the highest level of severity of illness and risk of mortality?
- A. Coma, stroke, HCAP, hypernatremia
- B. Aspiration pneumonia, hyponatremia, septic encephalopathy, and sepsis with acute hypoxemic respiratory failure
- C. Sepsis with acute hypoxemic respiratory failure, hyponatremia, pneumonia
- D. Severe sepsis, hypernatremia, delirium, pneumonia
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
A post-discharge query is needed to obtain a more specific principal diagnosis with the highest level of severity of illness (SOI) and risk of mortality (ROM) for this patient. The discharge diagnosis of health care associated pneumonia (HCAP) is not specific enough to capture the etiology, site, and severity of the pneumonia. Based on the clinical indicators in the case scenario, such as the history of aspiration, the chest x-ray findings, the elevated white blood count, the fever, and the antibiotic treatment, a more specific diagnosis of aspiration pneumonia would be appropriate. Aspiration pneumonia is a type of pneumonia that occurs when foreign material, such as food or vomit, is inhaled into the lungs, causing inflammation and infection. Aspiration pneumonia has a higher SOI and ROM than HCAP because it is associated with more complications and poorer outcomes 1.
Additionally, the discharge diagnosis of altered mental status is vague and does not reflect the underlying cause or severity of the condition. Based on the clinical indicators in the case scenario, such as the fever, the low sodium level, the moaning and disorientation, and the venous blood gas results, a more specific diagnosis of septic encephalopathy would be appropriate. Septic encephalopathy is a type of delirium that occurs when sepsis affects the brain function, causing confusion, agitation, or reduced consciousness. Septic encephalopathy has a higher SOI and ROM than altered mental status because it indicates a systemic inflammatory response and multi-organ dysfunction 2.
Furthermore, the discharge diagnosis of respiratory distress is also vague and does not reflect the underlying cause or severity of the condition. Based on the clinical indicators in the case scenario, such as the shortness of breath, the accessory muscle use, the respiratory rate, and the bilevel positive airway pressure treatment, a more specific diagnosis of acute hypoxemic respiratory failure would be appropriate. Acute hypoxemic respiratory failure is a type of respiratory failure that occurs when there is insufficient oxygen exchange in the lungs, causing low oxygen levels in the blood. Acute hypoxemic respiratory failure has a higher SOI and ROM than respiratory distress because it indicates a life-threatening condition that requires mechanical ventilation or oxygen therapy 3.
Finally, based on the clinical indicators in the case scenario, such as the fever, the elevated white blood count, and the antibiotic treatment, a diagnosis of sepsis should also be included in the query. Sepsis is a serious complication of infection that occurs when the body's immune system overreacts to an infection and causes widespread inflammation and organ damage. Sepsis has a high SOI and ROM because it can lead to septic shock or death if not treated promptly 4.
Therefore, a post-discharge query should ask the provider to confirm or rule out aspiration pneumonia, hyponatremia (low sodium level), septic encephalopathy, and sepsis with acute hypoxemic respiratory failure as possible diagnoses for this patient. These diagnoses would result in a more specific principal diagnosis with the highest level of SOI and ROM for this patient.
References:
CDIP Exam Content Outline (https://www.ahima.org/media/1z0x0x1a/cdip-exam-content-outline.pdf) Aspiration Pneumonia - an overview | ScienceDirect Topics1 Septic Encephalopathy - an overview | ScienceDirect Topics2 Acute Hypoxemic Respiratory Failure - an overview | ScienceDirect Topics3 Sepsis - Symptoms and causes - Mayo Clinic4
NEW QUESTION # 85
The key component of the auditing and monitoring process to ensure provider query response is to
- A. have a process in place for ongoing education and training of the staff involved in conducting provider queries
- B. review queries retrospectively to ensure that they are completed according to documented Policies and procedures
- C. audit individual providers to indicate improvement in health record documentation
- D. make sure that the language in the query is not leading or otherwise inappropriate
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 86
A clinical documentation integrity practitioner (CDIP) is developing a plan to promote the CDI program throughout a major hospital. It is proving challenging to find support. What is a primary step for the CDIP?
- A. Teach coding classes to the new physicians as needed
- B. Determine primary interests and needs as requested
- C. Determine primary interests of an individual or department
- D. Teach nursing staff about documentation integrity
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
A primary step for the CDIP to promote the CDI program throughout a major hospital is to determine the primary interests of an individual or department that could benefit from or support the CDI program. This is because different stakeholders may have different motivations, expectations, and challenges related to CDI, and the CDIP should tailor the communication and education strategies accordingly. For example, physicians may be interested in how CDI can improve their quality metrics, reimbursement, and patient outcomes; coders may be interested in how CDI can reduce coding errors, denials, and queries; and executives may be interested in how CDI can enhance revenue integrity, compliance, and reputation. By identifying the primary interests of each individual or department, the CDIP can demonstrate the value and relevance of the CDI program, address any barriers or concerns, and foster collaboration and engagement 23.
References: 1: AHIMA CDIP Exam Prep, Fourth Edition, p. 133 4 2: How to Promote Your Clinical Documentation Improvement Program 3: How to Market Your Clinical Documentation Improvement Program
NEW QUESTION # 87
Which of the following is an example of a hospital-acquired condition when not present on admission?
- A. Iatrogenic pneumothorax with venous catheterization
- B. Iatrogenic pneumothorax with lung biopsy
- C. Pressure ulcer stage III
- D. Pressure ulcer stage II
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
A hospital-acquired condition (HAC) is an undesirable situation or condition that affects a patient and that arose during a stay in a hospital or medical facility. CMS has identified 14 categories of HACs for which it will not pay the higher DRG rate if the condition was not present on admission (POA). One of these categories is stage III and IV pressure ulcers. A pressure ulcer is damage to the skin and underlying tissue caused by prolonged pressure on the skin. Stage III pressure ulcers involve full-thickness skin loss with damage or necrosis of subcutaneous tissue that may extend down to, but not through, underlying fascia. The ulcer presents as a deep crater with or without undermining of adjacent tissue.
A: Iatrogenic pneumothorax with lung biopsy is not a HAC, because it is not included in the CMS HAC list.
Iatrogenic pneumothorax is a HAC only when it occurs with venous catheterization.
B: Iatrogenic pneumothorax with venous catheterization is a HAC, but it may be present on admission if the venous catheterization was performed before the admission to the hospital.
C: Pressure ulcer stage II is not a HAC, because only stage III and IV pressure ulcers are included in the CMS HAC list. Stage II pressure ulcers involve partial-thickness skin loss involving epidermis, dermis, or both. The ulcer is superficial and presents clinically as an abrasion, blister, or shallow crater.
References:
CDIP Exam Preparation Guide, 2021 Edition. AHIMA Press. ISBN: 9781584268530 Hospital Acquired Conditions | CMS ICD-10 HAC List | CMS Bedsores (pressure ulcers) - Symptoms and causes - Mayo Clinic
NEW QUESTION # 88
A patient is admitted due to pneumonia. On day 1, a sputum culture is positive for psuedomonas bacteria. If the physician is queried and agrees that the patient has pseudomonas pneumonia, this specificity would
- A. not increase relative weight
- B. increase relative weight
- C. meet medical necessity
- D. not meet medical necessity
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
The specificity of pseudomonas pneumonia would increase the relative weight of the diagnosis-related group (DRG) for the patient's admission, which would affect the reimbursement for the hospital. Relative weight is a factor that reflects the average cost and resource use of a DRG compared to the average cost and resource use of all DRGs. The higher the relative weight, the higher the payment for the hospital. Pseudomonas pneumonia is classified as a major complication or comorbidity (MCC) in ICD-10-CM, which means that it significantly increases the severity of illness and risk of mortality of the patient. MCCs increase the relative weight of a DRG by assigning it to a higher-paying subclass within the same base DRG. For example, according to the CMS FY 2022 Inpatient Prospective Payment System Final Rule1, the relative weight for DRG 193 (Simple pneumonia and pleurisy with MCC) is 1.4819, while the relative weight for DRG 195 (Simple pneumonia and pleurisy without MCC) is 0.7579. Therefore, if the patient is admitted due to pneumonia and has pseudomonas pneumonia as an MCC, the hospital would receive a higher payment than if the patient does not have an MCC.
References:
CDIP Exam Content Outline (https://www.ahima.org/media/1z0x0x1a/cdip-exam-content-outline.pdf) CMS FY 2022 Inpatient Prospective Payment System Final Rule1
NEW QUESTION # 89
A patient is admitted for pneumonia with a WBC of 20,000, respiratory rate 20, heart rate 85, and oral temperature 99.0°. On day 2, sputum cultures reveal positive results for pseudomonas bacteria. The most appropriate action is to
- A. query the provider to see if pseudomonas sepsis is supported by the health record
- B. query the provider to document the etiology of pneumonia
- C. code pseudomonas pneumonia
- D. code pneumonia, unspecified
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
The most appropriate action in this case is to query the provider to document the etiology of pneumonia, which is pseudomonas bacteria. This is because the etiology of pneumonia affects the coding and classification of the condition, as well as the severity of illness, risk of mortality, and reimbursement. According to the ICD-10-CM Official Guidelines for Coding and Reporting, pneumonia should be coded by type whenever possible, and if the type of pneumonia is not documented, then the default code is J18.9, Pneumonia, unspecified organism 2. However, if the type of pneumonia is documented, then a more specific code can be assigned, such as J15.1, Pneumonia due to Pseudomonas 3. Therefore, querying the provider to document the etiology of pneumonia will improve the accuracy and completeness of the documentation and coding, and reflect the true clinical picture of the patient.
References: 1: AHIMA CDIP Exam Prep, Fourth Edition, p. 139 4 2: ICD-10-CM Official Guidelines for Coding and Reporting FY 2021, Section I.C.9.a 3: ICD-10-CM Code J15.1 - Pneumonia due to Pseudomonas
NEW QUESTION # 90
When there are comparative contrasting diagnoses supported by clinical criteria, the correct action is to
- A. code both diagnoses
- B. code the first condition listed
- C. query for clarification
- D. not code either diagnosis
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
When there are comparative contrasting diagnoses supported by clinical criteria, the correct action is to code both diagnoses, as long as they are not mutually exclusive. Comparative contrasting diagnoses are those that are considered as possible alternatives or differentials for the patient's condition, such as pneumonia versus bronchitis, or appendicitis versus diverticulitis. Coding both diagnoses will capture the clinical uncertainty and complexity of the case, and will allow for accurate reporting and reimbursement. References: :
https://www.ahima.org/media/owmhxbv1/cdip_contentoutline_2023_final.pdf :
https://my.ahima.org/store/product?id=67077
NEW QUESTION # 91
A clinical documentation integrity practitioner (CDIP) is reviewing an outpatient surgical chart. The patient underwent a laparoscopic appendectomy for acute gangrenous appendicitis. Which coding reference should be used for coding advice on correct assignment of the procedure code for proper ambulatory payment classification (APC) reimbursement?
- A. AHA Coding Clinic for ICD-10-CM/PCS
- B. O AMA CPT Assistant
- C. O ICD-10-CM/PCS Codebook
- D. The Merck Manual
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
The coding reference that should be used for coding advice on correct assignment of the procedure code for proper ambulatory payment classification (APC) reimbursement is the AMA CPT Assistant. The CPT Assistant is the official source of guidance from the American Medical Association (AMA) on the proper use and interpretation of the Current Procedural Terminology (CPT) codes, which are used to report outpatient and professional services. The CPT Assistant provides clinical scenarios, frequently asked questions, coding tips, and updates on CPT coding changes. The CPT codes are used to determine the APC reimbursement for outpatient services under the Medicare Outpatient Prospective Payment System (OPPS). (CDIP Exam Preparation Guide) References:
CDIP Exam Content Outline1
CDIP Exam Preparation Guide2
AMA CPT Assistant3
Medicare Claims Processing Manual Chapter 4 - Part B Hospital (Including Inpatient Hospital Part B and OPPS)
NEW QUESTION # 92
Which of the following is the definition of an Excludes 2 note in ICD-10-CM?
- A. Only one code can be assigned to completely describe the condition
- B. Two codes can be used together to completely describe the condition
- C. This is not a convention found in ICD-10-CM
- D. Neither of the codes can be assigned
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
An Excludes 2 note in ICD-10-CM indicates that the condition excluded is not part of the condition represented by the code, but a patient may have both conditions at the same time. When an Excludes 2 note appears under a code, it is acceptable to use both the code and the excluded code together to completely describe the condition. For example, under code R05 Cough, there is an Excludes 2 note for whooping cough (A37.-). This means that a patient can have both a cough and whooping cough at the same time, and both codes can be used together to capture the full clinical picture.
References:
CDIP Exam Content Outline (https://www.ahima.org/media/1z0x0x1a/cdip-exam-content-outline.pdf) ICD-10-CM Features | Diagnosis Coding: Using the ICD-10-CM1
NEW QUESTION # 93
......
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